COMPLETE PHILOSOPHICAL ANDofANSELM of CANTERBURYTranslatedJASPER HOPKI - PDF document

1 COMPLETE PHILOSOPHICAL ANDofANSELM of CA
COMPLETE PHILOSOPHICAL ANDofANSELM of CANTERBURYTranslatedJASPER HOPKINSandHERBERT RICHARDSONMinneapolis Library of Congress Control Number: 00-133229Printed in the United States of AmericaCopyright © 2000 by The Arthur J. Banning Press, Minneapolis,Minnesota 55402. All rights reserved. In the notes to the translations the numbering of the Psalmsaccords with the Douay version and, in parentheses, with theKing James (Authorized) version. A reference such as ÒS II,264:18Ó indicates ÒF. S. SchmittÕs edition of the Latin texts, Vol.II, p. 264, line 18.Ó DE GRAMMATICOHow (an) Expert-in-GrammarBoth a Substance and a Quality.Student. Concerning (an) expert-in-grammar I ask that you makeme certain whether it is a substance or a quality, so that once Iknow this I will know what I ought to think about other thingswhich in a similar way are spoken of paronymously.Teacher. First tell me why you are in doubt.. Because, apparently, both alternativesviz., that it is and isnot [the one or the other]can be proved by compelling reasons.Prove them, then.Do not be quick to contradict what I am going to say; butallow me to bring my speech to its conclusion, and then eitherapprove it or improve it.As you wish.The premises(i)Every/Everything expert-in-grammar is a man,(ii)Every man is a substance,suffice to prove that (an) expert-in-grammar is a substance. Forwhatever (an) expert-in-grammar possesses that results in sub-stantiality is possessed only by virtue of the fact that (an) expert-in-grammar is a man. Therefore, once it is conceded that (an) ex-pert-in-grammar is a man, then whatever is a consequence of beinga man is a consequence of being (an) expert-in-grammar. On theother hand, the philosophers who have dealt with this topic main-tain clearly that expert-in-grammar is a q

2 uality. And it is impu-dent to reject th
uality. And it is impu-dent to reject their authority on these matters.Furthermore, it is necessary that (an) expert-in-grammar be ei-ther a substance or a quality. Thus, whichever one of these it is,it is not the other; and whichever one it is not, it has to be theother. Accordingly, whatever suffices to prove the one alternativedisproves the other; and whatever counts against the one counts 132 The Latin word ÒgrammaticusÓ is usually rendered throughout as Ò(an) expert-in-grammar,Ó so that it may function either as an adjective or as a noun, de-pending upon whether the article ÒanÓ is included or ignored. ÒGrammaticatranslated as Òexpertise-in-grammar.ÓComposed at Bec, during the interval1080-1085, or perhaps even earlier. for the other. Therefore, since one of these disjuncts is true andthe other false, I ask that by detecting the falsity you show me thetruth.The arguments which you have invoked in support of bothdisjuncts are compellingexcept for your saying that if the onedisjunct is true, then the other cannot be true. Hence, you oughtnot to require me to show that the one disjunct is false (some-thing which no one can do), but to require me to disclose (if I can)how these alternatives are not inconsistent with each other.But first I would like to hear from you what objections youthink can be raised against these arguments of yours.. I was eagerly waiting to hear from you the very thing whichyou are now demanding of me. But since you maintain that thesearguments are irreproachable, it is up to me, who am in doubt,to disclose what troubles me, and it is up to you to show the ten-ability of each disjunct and the compatibility of both.Tell me, then, what you think; and I shall try to do what youare requesting.. The proposition which says that (an) expert-i

3 n-grammar is aman can, it seems to me, b
n-grammar is aman can, it seems to me, be contested in the following way:(i)No/Nothing expert-in-grammar can be conceived withoutconceiving of expertise-in-grammar.(ii)Any man can be conceived without conceiving of expertise-in-grammar.Moreover,iii)Every/Everything expert-in-grammar admits ofmore and less.(iv)No man admits of more and less.From each of these sets of two premises one and the same con-clusion follows: viz., that(v)No/Nothing expert-in-grammar is a man.This conclusion does not follow.Why not?. Well, do you think that the name ÒanimalÓ signifies some-De Grammatico1 - 3 133 thing other than living-substance-cap able-of-perception?. Assuredly, an animal is nothing other than a living-substance-capable-of-perception, and a living-substance-capable-of-perceptionis nothing other than an animal.. This is true. But tell me, as well, whether whatever is noth-ing other than a living-substance-capable-of-perception can be con-ceived without conceiving of rationality, and whether it need notbe rational.. I cannot deny it.. Therefore, any animal can be conceived without conceivingof rationality, and no animal is necessarily rational.. I cannot say that it does not follow from the premises I havealthough I especially dread what I suspect you are aim-. Now, no man can be conceived without conceiving of ratio-nality; and it is necessary that every man be rational.. I am hemmed in on both sides.For if I agree, then you willconclude that no man is an animal; and if I disagree, then youwill say that not only can I be conceived without conceiving of ra-tionality but also that I really am without rationality.. Do not be alarmed. For there does not follow what you think[follows].. If [the outcome] is as you promise, then I willingly grant allthat you have premised; b

4 ut if [the outcome is] not [as youpromis
ut if [the outcome is] not [as youpromise, then] I am unwilling [to grant your premises].. Well, then, formulate into two syllogisms the four last state-ments which I made.. Surely they can be arranged in the following order:(i)Any animal can be conceived without conceiving of rationality.(ii)No man can be conceived without conceiving of rationality.Moreover,(iii)No animal is necessarily rational.(iv)Every man is, necessarily, rational.From each of these arrangements of two propositions there is seento follow:(v)No man is an animal.De Grammatico3 134 See Daniel 13:22. But nothing is more false than this conclusion. Yet, I do not seethat the foregoing premises are in any respect untenable. For thetwo premises which have ÒmanÓ as their subject-term are so self-evident that it would be impudent to prove them; and the twopremises which have ÒanimalÓ as their subject-term seem to be sowell-established that it would be impudent to deny them. Now, Isee that the structure of these two syllogisms is in every respectsimilar to the two syllogisms which I set forth, a little earlier.Therefore, I suspect that you have introduced them only for thefollowing reason: viz., that when I would recognize their obvious-ly false conclusion, I would recognize the same thing about thesimilar syllogisms which I had constructed.. This is true.. Therefore, show in what respect there isboth in the presentcase and in the preceding oneso much deception that althoughthe premises are seen to be true and to be conjoined accordingto the rules for syllogisms, nevertheless truth does not supporttheir conclusions.. Let me do this in the case of your syllogisms. And, if youlike, you examine mine by yourself.. Let it be done in accordance with your judgment.. Iterate and construct, once more, the s

5 yllogisms which you. ÒAny man can be con
yllogisms which you. ÒAny man can be conceived without conceiving of expertise-in-grammar.Ó. What do you say that a man can be conceived as without con-ceiving of expertise-in-grammar?. [He can be conceived as] a man.. Therefore, in this premise, say what you mean.. Anymancanbeconceivedasamanwithoutconceivingofexpertise-in-grammar.. I grant it. Add the minor premise.. ÒNo/Nothing expert-in-grammar can be conceived withoutconceiving of expertise-in-grammar.Ó. What is (an) expert-in-grammar unable to be conceived without conceiving of expertise-in-grammar?. (An) expert-in-grammar.De Grammatico3 . Therefore, say what you mean.. No/Nothing expert-in-grammar can be conceived as (an) ex-pert-in-grammar without conceiving of expertise-in-grammar.. Conjoin these two propositionsthus expanded, as you havejust now presented them.(i)Any man can be conceived as a manwithout conceiving of expertise-in-grammar.(ii)No/Nothing expert-in-grammar can be conceived as(an) expert-in-grammar without conceiving ofexpertise-in-grammar.. See, then, whether they have a common term, without whichthey do not entail any conclusion.. I see that they do not have a common term and, hence, thatno conclusion follows from them.. Construct the other syllogism.. It is no longer necessary for you to take pains to lay out thissyllogism, because I already detect its fallacy. For I was constru-ing its propositions to mean:(iii)No man is more or less a man.(iv)Every/Everything expert-in-grammar is more or less (an) expert-in-grammar.And since these two propositions have no common term, they en-tail no conclusion.. Does it seem to you, then, that in the case of these conjoinedpremises of yours no conclusion at all can be inferred?. I certainly thought so. But your question makes me suspectthat perhap

6 s some logical power lies hidden in them
s some logical power lies hidden in them. Yet, withouta common term how can they entail any conclusion?. The common term of a syllogism must be common not somuch in verbal form as in meaning. For just as no conclusion fol-lows if it is common in verbal form but not in meaning, so noharm is done if it is common in meaning but not in verbal form.Indeed, the meaningrather than the wordsdetermines a syl-logism.. I await your drawing an inference from my premises.. Assuredly, they entail something, but not what you expect.. Whatever it is, I accept it gratefully.De Grammatico4 . Does not someone who says(i)Any man can be conceived as a man withoutconceiving of expertise-in-grammar,and(ii)No/Nothing expert-in-grammar can be conceived as(an) expert-in-grammar without conceiving ofexpertise-in-grammar,signify the fact that?:(iii)Being (a) man does not require expertise-in-grammar,and (iv)Being (an) expert-in-grammar does require expertise-in-grammar.. Nothing is more true.. DothesetwopropositionswhichIhavejustnowsaidtobesignifiedinthoseothertwopropositionshaveacommonterm?. They do.. Therefore, it follows thatv)Being (an) expert-in-grammar is not identical withbeing (a) man. (That is, there is not the same definition of each.). Assuredly, I see that this follows and is the case.. Nevertheless, it does not hereby follow that (an) expert-in-grammar is not a manin the sense in which you were constru-ing [this proposition]. However, if you construe Ò(An) expert-in-grammar is not (a) manÓ to mean(vi)(An) expert-in-grammar is not the same thing as(a) man (i.e., they do not have the same definition),then this conclusion is true.. I understand what you mean.. Well, then, if you correctly understand what I have said, tellme how you would refute the following syllogism if som

7 eone con-structed it like this:(i)Every/
eone con-structed it like this:(i)Every/Everything expert-in-grammar is spoken ofas a quality.(ii)No man is spoken of as a quality.So:(iii)No man is (an) expert-in-grammar.. This seems to me to be like saying:(iv)Everything rational is spoken of as a quality.(v)No man is spoken of as a quality.So: (vi)No man is rational.De Grammatico5 But no proof can make it true that ÒrationalÓ is not predicable ofany man. Similarly, the syllogism which you have just now set forthdoes not conclude with logical necessity that Òexpert-in-grammarÓis not predicable of any man. For if we understand them in ac-cordance with their truth, the premises of your syllogism signifyas if the following were being said:(vii)Every/Everything expert-in-grammar is spoken ofas (an) expert-in-grammar, in terms of a quality.(viii)No man is spoken of as a man, in terms of a quality.But from these two premises it does not at all follow thatix)ÒExpert-in-grammarÓ is not predicable of any man,because [in them] the term affirmed of expert-in-grammar and de-nied of man is not the same. However, there would be a commonterm in these premises, and they would necessitate a conclusion,if, given the major premise as it has been stated, the followingminor premise were true:(x)No man is spoken of as (an) expert-in-grammar,in terms of a quality,or else if, given the minor premise, the following major premisewere true:(xi)Every/Everything expert-in-grammar is spoken ofas a man, in terms of a quality.For from each of these conjunctions there follows thatxii)ÒExpert-in-grammarÓ is not predicable of any man.However, suppose someone wants to construe the proposition(xiii)(A) man is not (an) expert-in-grammarto mean(xiv)(A) man is not the same thing as (an) expert-in-grammar,(as if I were to say ÒLightning is a bri

8 lliant-flashÓ or ÒLightning isnot a bril
lliant-flashÓ or ÒLightning isnot a brilliant-flashÓi.e., that lightning is (or that it is not) thevery same thing as a brilliant-flash). If someone thus construes)(A) man is not (an) expert-in-grammar,then in accordance with this construal it follows from thosepremisesif their meaning is rightly examinedthat(xvi)No man is (an) expert-in-grammar.De Grammatico6 138 For, indeed, the meaning of those propositions does have a com-mon term which serves to prove that(xvii)Being (a) man is not identical with being (an) expert-in-grammar.. You have correctly understood what I have said. But perhapsyou have not paid careful attention to what I have said.. In what way have I correctly understood it and yet not paidit careful attention?. Tell me what would follow if someone were to set forth thefollowing premises:(i)No man can be conceived without conceiving of rationality.(ii)Any stone can be conceived without conceiving of rationality.. What would follow except?:(iii)No stone is a man.. How do you construe this conclusion? [Do you take it tomean] that(iv)A stone is in no respect a manor [to mean] that(v)(A) stone is not the same thing as (a) man [i.e., that the twodo not have the same definition].. [ To mean] that a stone is in no respect a man.. Tell me, then, how this syllogism differs from that syllogismof yours in which you say:(vi)(An) expert-in-grammar cannot be conceived withoutconceiving of expertise-in-grammar.(vii)A man can be [conceived without conceivingof expertise-in-grammar].So:(viii)(An) expert-in-grammar is not a man.. As far as concerns the cogency of the reasoning, I see thatyour syllogism does not differ from mine. For just as in mine wemust understand that(ix)(An) expert-in-grammar cannot be conceived as (an) expert-in-grammar without conceiving o

9 f expertise-in-grammar,and (x)A man can
f expertise-in-grammar,and (x)A man can be conceived as a man withoutconceiving of expertise-in-grammar,De Grammatico6 so in yours we must understand that(xi)A man cannot be conceived as a man withoutconceiving of rationality,and (xii)A stone can be conceived as a stone withoutconceiving of rationality.And sosince the conclusion of your syllogism (viz., that a stoneis in no respect a man) is certainyou seem to me earlier to haveobscured by your clever explanations the conclusion of my syllo-gism (a syllogism which is in every respect similar to yours).Hence, I now understand why you said that I have correctly un-derstood but have not paid careful attention. For I correctly un-derstood what you meant when you spoke to me, but I did notpay careful attention to the point you were making, because I didnot realize how [what you said] was misleading me.. On the contrary! Your analysis was incorrect in that you didnot realize how [what I said] was leading you.. In what way [was that]?. Surely, if the syllogism which I have just set forth were in-terpreted (as I interpreted yours) in such way as to say(xiii)No man can be conceived as a man withoutconceiving of rationality,but (xiv)Any stone can be conceived as a stone without conceiving ofrationality,it would have no other deductive power than I said that yours has.But since my syllogism can be construed in another waya wayin which yours cannot be construedit has the conclusion(xv)A stone can in no respect be a man.For when I say that(xvi)No man can be conceived without conceiving of rationality,and (xvii)Any stone can be conceived without conceiving of rationality,these propositions canindeed, they ought tobe interpreted asif to say:(xviii)No man can in any respect be conceived withoutconceiving of rationality.(xix

10 )Any stone can, in whatever respect, be
)Any stone can, in whatever respect, be conceived withoutconceiving of rationality.And from these there follows that(xx)No stone is in any respect a man.De Grammatico7 140 But in your premises the truth does not at all allow for a similarconstrual. For, indeed, we cannot say either that(xxi)No/Nothing expert-in-grammar can in any respectbe conceived without conceiving of expertise-in-grammar,or that(xxii)Any man can, in whatever respect, be conceived withoutconceiving of expertise-in-grammar.For, on the one hand, every man who is (an) expert-in-grammarcan be conceived as a man without conceiving of expertise-in-grammar. And, on the other hand, no man can be conceived as(an) expert-in-grammar without conceiving of expertise-in-gram-mar. Therefore, your premises cannot entail that(xxiii) (An) expert-in-grammar is in no respect a man.. I do not have anything to say against this verdict of yoursBut since you have tacitly admonished me not to be content mere-ly to understand what you mean but to pay attention to the pointyou are making, I think we must pay attention to the conclusionwhich you showed to be derivable from my syllogism: viz., that(i)Being (an) expert-in-grammar is not identical with being a man.For if this conclusion is true, then it is not necessarily the case thatwhat is (an) expert-in-grammar is thereby a man. Now,(ii)If follows from expert-in-grammar, thenbeing a man follows from being (an) expert-in-grammar.(iii)Being a man does not follow from being (an) expert-in-grammar.Therefore,does not follow from expert-in-grammarTherefore,(v) It is not the case that every/everything expert-in-grammar is a man.But since for every/everything expert-in-grammar there is one andthe same reason why they are all men: assuredly,(vi)Either every/everything expert

11 -in-grammar is a man or elseno/nothing [
-in-grammar is a man or elseno/nothing [expert-in-grammar is a man].De Grammatico7 Now, it has been shown thatvii)Not every/everything [expert-in-grammar is a man].Therefore,(viii)No/Nothing [expert-in-grammar is a man].Thus, it seems that you have concededby obtaining it more skill-fullythe very conclusion which you have skillfully eliminatedfrom my syllogism.. Although I tacitly admonished you to pay attention to whatyou hear, nevertheless I did not, it appears, do so in vain. For al-though you prove sophistically that no/nothing expert-in-grammardoing so by means of the consideration that being (an)expert-in-grammar is not identical with being a manneverthelessthis proof will be profitable to you when you will behold exposedin its fallaciousness the sophism which is deceiving you under theguise of correct reasoning.. Show, then, that this proof which I have just constructed con-cerning expert-in-grammar is misleading me; and show at whatpoint it is misleading me.. Let's go back to the case of . In the case ofthese we so ÒfeelÓ (so to speak) the truth that no sophism can per-even though it enjoins usto believe a falsity. Tell me,then, whether the [fact of] being such-and-such a thing is capturedby that thing's definition.. This is true.. Is the definition of ÒmanÓ identical with the definition of an-imal" ?. By no means. For if Òrational, mortal animalÓ (which is thedefinition of "man") were the definition of Òanimal,Ó then what-ever ÒanimalÓ applied to, Òrational and mortalÓ would apply tosomething which is false.. Therefore, it is not the case that being a man is identical withbeing an animal.. This follows.. Therefore, from this proposition you can prove that no manis an animaldoing so by means of the same argument by whichyou have just proved that no/n

12 othing expert-in-grammar is a man.Hence,
othing expert-in-grammar is a man.Hence, if you see to be obvious falsity that which your line of rea-soning entails in this case, do not believe to be assured truth thatDe Grammatico8 142 which deludes you in that other case.. You have now showed that my reasoning misleads me. Show,as well, at what point it misleads me.. Do you not remember what I said and you agreed to a shortwhile ago, viz., that Òbeing (an) expert-in-grammar is not identi-cal with being a manÓ amounts to saying Òthe definition of Ôexpert-in-grammarÕ is not identical with the definition of ÔmanÕ Ó (i.e., itis not the case that (an) expert-in-grammar and a man are in everyrespect the same)? For just as ÒmanÓ ought not to be defined interms of expertise-in-grammar, so Òexpert-in-grammarÓ cannot bedefined except in terms of expertise-in-grammar. Therefore, yourargument ought to be construed in the following way:If (ix)Being (an) expert-in-grammar is not identical withbeing a man in an unqualified sense of Òbeing a man,Óthen(x)If anything is (an) expert-in-grammar, there does not therebyfollow that it is a man in an unqualified sense of Òbeing a man.ÓSimilarly, we must understand that , in an unqualified senseof Òman,Ó does not follow from expert-in-grammar. That is, if some-thing is (an) expert-in-grammar, there does not follow that it is aman in an unqualified sense of Òman.Ó Thus, no other conclusionfollows except that(xi)No/Nothing expert-in-grammar is a man in an unqualifiedsense of Òman.Ó. Nothing is more clear.. Now, if it were proved (as I think can easily be done) thatbeing (an) expert-in-grammar is not identical with being a man(just as being white is not identical with being a man; for a mancan exist without the color white, and the color white can existwithout the man), then it wou

13 ld truly follow that some/somethingexper
ld truly follow that some/somethingexpert-in-grammar is able to be not-a-man.. Why, then, are we going to all this trouble, if this conclusioncan be proven? Prove it, and let our inquiry be finished.. You ought not to demand this of me here. For in our in-quiry we are not discussing whether some/something expert-in-grammar is able to be not-a-man; rather, we are discussing whethersome/something expert-in-grammar is not-a-man. But you see thatDe Grammatico8 it cannot be proven [that some/something expert-in-grammar isnot-a-man].. I do not yet see [the truth of this point], because I still havean objection to raise against it.. State it.. Aristotle declared that(i)Expert-in-grammar belongs to the class of itemswhich are present in a subject,and(ii)No man is present in a subject.Therefore,(iii) No/Nothing expert-in-grammar is a man.. Aristotle did not intend for this conclusion to be drawn fromhis statements. For Aristotle himself says that a man and are expert [s]-in-grammar.. How, then, is this syllogism refuted?. Answer the following question for me. When you speak toexpert-in-grammar, of what shall I understand you to bespeaking?: of this name or of the things which this name signi-fies?. Of the things.. What things, then, does it signify?. Man and expertise-in-grammar.. Therefore, upon hearing Òexpert-in-grammar,Ó I shall con-strue it [to signify] (a) man or expertise-in-grammar; and when Ispeak of (an) expert-in-grammar, I shall be speaking of (a) manor of expertise-in-grammar.. This is the way it ought to be.. Tell me, then: Is (a) man a substance, or is (a) man present. (A) man is not present in a subject but is a substance.. Is expertise-in-grammar a quality, and is it present in a sub-. It is both of these.. Therefore, it is not strange for someone to

14 say that with re-spect to being a man (
say that with re-spect to being a man (an) expert-in-grammar is a substance andis not present in a subject, but with respect to expertise-in-gram-mar expert-in-grammar is a quality and is present in a subject.De Grammatico9 144 . I cannot deny it. But let me state one more argument for whyexpert-in-grammar is not a substance: viz., because(i)Every substance is either primary or secondary substance,but (ii)Expert-in-grammar is neither primary nor secondary substance.. RememberthestatementofAristotlewhichIcitedamomentago,inwhichhesays(an)expert-in-grammarisbothprimaryandsecondarysubstance,inthathesaysamanandarecalledexpert[s] -in-grammar. But, nevertheless, how do youprove that (an) expert-in-grammar is neither a primary nor a sec-ondary substance?. Well, because it is present in a subject, whereas no substanceis [present in a subject]. Moreover, it is predicated of more thanone thinga fact which is not true of primary substance. And,on the other hand, it is not genus or species, and is not predicat-ed as something essentialboth of which features are true of sec-ondary substance.. If you correctly remember what we have already said, [youwill realize that] none of these [reasons] prevents (an) expert-in-grammar from being a substance. For in a certain respect (an) pert-in-grammaris not present in a subject, and is genus and species,and is predicated as something essential. For (an) expert-in-gram-is species) and is animal (Animalis genus); andÒmanÓ and ÒanimalÓ are predicated as something essential. Fur-thermore, (an) expert-in-grammar is an individual, even as it isman and animal; for even as a man and an animal [are individu-als], so an expert-in-grammar is an individual. For instance,Socrates is an animal and a man and an expert-in-grammar.. I cannot deny wh

15 at you say.. If you do not have any othe
at you say.. If you do not have any other premises from which you canprove that (an) expert-in-grammar is not a man, then prove nowthat (an) expert-in-grammar is not expertise-in-grammar.. I can do this more easily by pointing than by arguing. For,indeed, you crushed all my arguments when you disclosed that dif-ferent things are signified by Òexpert-in-grammarÓ and that weDe Grammatico10 ought to understand and to speak about (an) expert-in-grammar inaccordance with these things. And although I cannot deny this,nevertheless it does not satisfy my mind in such way that my mindrests tranquil, as if what it was seeking had been found. For youseem to me as if you did not care about teaching me, but to careonly about impeding my arguments. But just as it was up to meto state what forces me to doubt both alternatives, so it was up toyou either to eliminate one alternative or to show how the two al-ternatives are not inconsistent with each other.. It has been shown that the statement Ò(An) expert-in-gram-mar is a substanceÓ and the statement ÒExpert-in-grammar is aqualityÓ are not at all inconsistent with each other, inasmuch aswe must understand and speak about (an) expert-in-grammar attimes with respect to being a man, at times with respect to ex-pertise-in-grammar. Why do you think that this proof is unsatis-factory?. Because anyone who understands the name Òexpert-in-gram-marÓ knows that Òexpert-in-grammarÓ signifies man and expertise-in- grammar. And yet, if with this assurance I were to speak inpublic and to say(i)(A) useful expertise is expert-in-grammar,(ii)This man has expert-in-grammar,then not only would the experts-in-grammar be furious but eventhe unlearned would jeer. Therefore, I shall not at all believe thatthe expositors of dialectic did not have s

16 ome other reason for hav-ing so often an
ome other reason for hav-ing so often and so studiously written in their books what theythemselves would have been ashamed to say in their conversations.For, indeed, very often when they want to exhibit a quality or anaccident, they add the comment: ÒFor example, expert-in-grammarand the like,Ó although the customary usage of all speakers atteststhat (an) expert-in-grammar is a substance rather than a qualityor an accident. On the other hand, when [these expositors of di-alectic] want to teach something about substance, they nowheresay: ÒFor example, expert-in-grammar or the like.Ó Add to thispoint the following one: if (an) expert-in-grammar is to be calledboth a substance and a quality simply because [its name] signifiesboth man and expertise-in-grammar, then why is not man likewiseDe Grammatico11 146 both a substance and a quality? For, in fact, ÒmanÓ signifies a sub-stance together with all the differentiae which are in (a) manfor example, mortality and capability-of-perception. But in noneof the places where something has been written about some qual-ity or other has the phrase Òas is (a) manÓ been offered by way of. As for your repudiatingsimply because it does not applyin the case of the name ÒmanÓthe explanation I gave of why ex-pert-in-grammar is indeed both a substance and a quality: you doso, it seems to me, because you do not consider how dissimilarlythe name ÒmanÓ signifies the things of which a man consists andthe name Òexpert-in-grammarÓ signifies man and expertise-in-grammar. Assuredly, of and by itself the name ÒmanÓ signifies asa single thing those things of which the whole of (a) man consists.Among these things substance holds the principal place, since itis the cause of the others and since it possesses them (not as it-self needing them bu

17 t) as things needing itself. (For there
t) as things needing itself. (For there is nodifferentia of a substance without which this substance could notexist; yet none of its differentiae can exist without it.) Therefore,although all the things at once, and as a single whole, and in asingle signification, and with a single name, are called man, nev-ertheless the name ÒmanÓ so principally signifies, and is appella-tive of, the substance that although it is correct to say(i)(The) substance is a man, and (the) man is a substance,nevertheless no one would say(ii)(The) rationality is a man,(iii) (The) man is rationality.Rather, [everyone would say](iv) (The) man is someone who has rationality.However, it is not the case that the name Òexpert-in-grammarÓ sig-nifies as a single thing man and expertise-in-grammar; rather, ofand by itself it signifies expertise-in-grammar, and on the basis ofsomething else it signifies man. Moreover, although the name Òex-De Grammatico11 pert-in-grammarÓ is appellative of (a) man, nevertheless it is notproper to say that it signifies man; and although Òexpert-in-gram-marÓ signifies expertise-in-grammar, nevertheless it is not ap-pellative of expertise-in-grammar. Now, I term the name of anygiven thing appellative of it if this thing is called by this name inthe customary course of speaking. For example, it does not accordwith the customary way of speaking to say ÒExpertise-in-grammaris (an) expert-in-grammarÓ or Ò(An) expert-in-grammar is exper-tise-in-grammar.Ó But [it does accord with the customary way ofspeaking to say] ÒA man is (an) expert-in-grammarÓ and ÒAn ex-pert-in-grammar is a man.Ó. I do not see why you say that of and by itself Òexpert-in-gram-marÓ signifies expertise-in-grammar and that on the basis ofsomething else it signifies man. [And I do not see] in what

18 senseÒexpert-in-grammarÓ signifies only
senseÒexpert-in-grammarÓ signifies only expertise-in-grammar. For justas (a) man consists of animal and rationality and mortality, andthus ÒmanÓ signifies these three things, so (an) expert-in-grammarconsists of man and expertise-in-grammar, and thus the name Òex-pert-in-grammarÓ signifies both of these. For in the absence of ex-pertise-in-grammar a man is never called (an) expert-in-grammar;and in the absence of a man expertise-in-grammar is never called(an) expert-in-grammar.. Well, then, if the facts of the matter are as you claim, being(an) expert-in-grammar and the definition of Òexpert-in-grammarÓwould be: man who has expertise-in-grammar.. They cannot be anything else.. Therefore,sinceexpertise-in-grammarwoulddistinguish(a)manwhois(an)expert-in-grammarfrom(a)manwhoisnot(an)expert-in-grammar,expertise-in-grammarwouldconducetotheex-istenceof(an)expert-in-grammar,andwouldbeapartofitsbeing,andcouldnotbefirstpresentinandthenabsentfrom(an)ex-pert-in-grammarwithoutresultinginthedestructionofthisvery. What follows from this?. Therefore, expertise-in-grammar would not be an accidentbut would be a substantial differentia; and would be theDe Grammatico12 genus, and expert-in-grammarwould be the species. And therewould be a similar argument concerning the color white and otheraccidents of this kind. But an exposition of the complete art [ofdialectic] would show this outcome to be false.. Although I cannot deny what you say, nevertheless I am notyet convinced that Òexpert-in-grammarÓ does not signify man.. Let us suppose there is some rational animalother thanwhich has expertise-in-grammar, even as does a man.. It is easy to suppose this.T. Therefore, there is something which is not a man but whichhas expertise-in-grammar.. This follows.. But anything that has ex

19 pertise-in-grammar is (an) expert-in-gra
pertise-in-grammar is (an) expert-in-grammar.. I grant it.. Therefore, there is something which is not a man but is (an)expert- in-grammar.S. It follows.. Now, you say that Òexpert-in-grammarÓ signifies man.. Therefore, something which is not a man is a manclusion which is false.. [I agree that] the argument is brought to this conclusion.. Therefore, do you not see that the only reason Òexpert-in-grammarÓ seems to signify man more than does ÒwhiteÓ is thatexpertise-in-grammar is an accident only of man, whereas white-ness is not an accident only of man?. This follows from what we have supposed. But I want you toprove this without a supposition which is contrary to fact.. If man were signified by Òexpert-in-grammar,Ó then ÒmanÓwould not be predicated of anything at the same time as Òexpert-in-grammarÓjust as because animal is signified by Òman,Ó Òani-malÓ is not predicated [of anything] at the same time as "man." Forexample, it is not appropriate to say that(i) Socrates is a man who is an animal.. This cannot be contradicted.. But it is appropriate to say that(ii) Socrates is a man who is (an) expert-in-grammar.De Grammatico13 149 . [Yes, it is] appropriately [said].. Therefore, it is not the case that Òexpert-in- grammarÓ sig-nifies man.. I see that this follows.. Likewise, if (an) expert-in-grammar were (a) man-who-has-expertise-in-grammar, then wherever Òexpert-in-grammarÓ wouldbe put, it would be appropriate to put Òman who has expertise-in-grammar.Ó. This is true.. Therefore, if it is appropriate to say(iii)Socrates is a man who is (an) expert-in-grammar,then it would also be appropriate to say(iv)Socrates is a man who is a man who has expertise-in-grammar.. It follows.Now, every man who has expertise-in-grammar is a man whois (an) expert-in-grammar.. Thi

20 s is true.. Therefore,Socrateswhoisamanw
s is true.. Therefore,Socrateswhoisamanwhoisamanwhohasex-pertise-in-grammarisamanwhoisamanwhois(an)expert-in-grammar.Andsince(an)expert-in-grammarisamanwhohasex-pertise-in-grammar,itfollowsthatSocratesisamanwhoisamanwhoisamanwhohasexpertise-in-grammarandsoon,toinfini-ty.. I cannot resist this obvious inference.. Moreover, if we must take Òexpert-in-grammarÓ to signifyboth man and expertise-in-grammar, then we must likewise takeany other paronymous name of this kind to signify both that whichis named paronymously and that from which the paronymousname is derived.. This is what I was thinking.. Therefore, Òtoday'sÓ would signify both today and that whichis called today's.. What follows next?. Thus, Òtoday'sÓ would signify something along with signify-ing a time..This would have to be the case.. Therefore, Òtoday'sÓ would be a verb and not a name; for itwould be a [simple] utteranceand not a phrasesignifyingDe Grammatico13 150 something along with signifying a time.S. You have satisfactorily proven to me that Òexpert-in-grammarÓdoes not signify man.. So you realize why I said that Òexpert-in-grammar" does notsignify man?. I do, and I am waiting for you to show that "expert-in-gram-marÓ signifies expertise-in-grammar.. Did you not say a moment ago that Òexpert-in-grammarÓ sig-nifies man-who-has-expertise-in-grammar?. Yes, and I believed it.. But now it has been satisfactorily proven that Òexpert-in-grammarÓ does not signify man.. Yes, satisfactorily.. What, then, remains?. That Òexpert-in-grammarÓ does not signify anything otherthan having-expertise-in-grammar.. So it signifies expertise-in-grammar?. It has been satisfactorily proven that Òexpert-in-grammarÓ isappellative of man but not of expertise-in-grammar, and signifiesexpertise-in-grammar but not man. But s

21 ince you have said thatof and by itself
ince you have said thatof and by itself Òexpert-in-grammarÓ signifies expertise-in-gram-mar and that on the basis of something else it signifies man, I askyou to distinguish clearly for me these two significations, so thatI may understand in what sense Òexpert-in-grammarÓ does not sig-nify that which in some sense it does signify, and [may under-stand] in what sense it is appellative of that which it does not sig-nify.. Suppose that without your knowing about it a white horsehas been shut up in a building. And suppose someone says to you:ÒIn this building there is whitenessÓ (or ÒIn this building there iswhiteÓ). Would you thereby know that a horse is in that building?. No. For whether he said ÒwhiteÓ or ÒwhitenessÓ or Òthat inwhich there is whitenessÓ I would not conceive of the being of anydefinite thing except of this color..Evenifyoudidconceiveofsomethingotherthanthiscolor,itiscertainthatyouwouldnotonthebasisofthenameÒwhiteÓconceiveofthebeingofthethinginwhichthiscolorispresent.De Grammatico13 . This is certain. For even if [the thought of] a material objector [of] a surface came to mind (something which happens onlybecause I have experience of the fact that whiteness is usually pre-sent in these things), still the name ÒwhiteÓ would not itself signi-fy any of these things (even as has been proven about Òexpert-in-grammarÓ). However, I am still waiting for you to show that it doessignify [such things].. What if you saw a white horse and a black ox standing be-side each other, and someone said to you with regard to the horse,ÒPoke it,Ó but did not indicate by a gesture which one he wasspeaking of. Would you know that he was speaking of the horse?. But if in reply to youwho do not know, and who have askedÒWhich one?Óhe were to say ÒThe white one,Ó would you

22 discernwhich one he was talking about?.
discernwhich one he was talking about?. On the basis of the name ÒwhiteÓ I would understand thatthe horse was meant.. Therefore, the name ÒwhiteÓ would signify to you the horse.. Yes, it certainly would.. Do you not see that [the name ÒwhiteÓ would signify thehorse] in a way other than does the name ÒhorseÓ?. Iseeit.Surely,evenbeforeIwouldknowthatthehorseiswhite,thenameÒhorseÓofandbyitself,andnotonthebasisofanythingelsewouldsignifytomethesubstanceofthehorse.ButthenameÒwhiteÓwouldnotofandbyitselfsignify[tome]thesub-stanceofthehorse,butwouldsignifyitonthebasisofsomethingelse,viz.,onthebasisofthefactthatIknowthehorsetobewhite.ForsincethenameÒwhiteÓwouldsignifynothingotherthandoesthephraseÒhavingwhitenessÓ:justasbyitselfthisphrasewouldsignifytomewhitenessbutnotthethingwhichhaswhiteness,soalsothenameÒwhiteÓ[wouldbyitselfsignifytomewhitenessbutnotthethingwhichhaswhiteness].ButIwouldknowthatwhite-nessisinthehorse,and[Iwouldknow]thisonsomebasisotherthanonthebasisofthenameÒwhiteÓ(viz.,[Iwouldknowit]onthebasisofsight).Therefore,havingunderstoodonthebasisofthenameÒwhiteÓthatwhitenessismeant,IwouldonthebasisofthefactthatIknowthewhitenesstobeinthehorsestandthatthehorsewasmeant.Thatis,onsomebasisotherthanonthebasisofthenameÒwhite,Ówhichis,however,appellativeDe Grammatico14 152 ofthehorse,[Iwouldunderstandthatthehorsewasmeant].. Do you see, then, in what sense ÒwhiteÓ does not signify thatwhich in some sense it does signify? [And do you see] in whatsense it is appellative of that which it does not signify?. Yes,Ialsoseethesepoints.ForÒwhiteÓdoesanddoesnotsig-nifythehorse,sinceofandbyitselfitdoesnotsignifythehorse,butonthebasisofsomethingelseitdoessignifythehorse.And,nevertheless,ÒwhiteÓisanappellativeofthehorse.AndwhatIseetobethecasewiththewordÒwhiteÓIrecognizetobethecasew

23 ithÒexpert-in-grammarÓandwithotherparony
ithÒexpert-in-grammarÓandwithotherparonymsofthiskind.There-fore,Ithinkthatthesignificationofnamesandverbscanbedi-videdinsuchwaythatthereis(1)significationofandbyitself,andthereis(2)significationonthebasisofsomethingelse.. Consider also that of these two significations the one whichexists of and by itself belongs to significant utterances substan-tially; but the other signification belongs to them accidentally. Forexample, when in the definition of ÒnameÓ or of ÒverbÓ it is saidthat a name or a verb is a significant utterance, we must interpretÒsignificantÓ to mean only the signification which exists of and byitself. For if that signification which exists on the basis of some-thing else had to be included in the definition of a name or of averb, then Òtoday'sÓ would no longer be a name but would be averb. For in terms of this [accidental] signification Òtoday'sÓ wouldupon occasion signify something together with signifying a time(as I said earlier). And this is the characteristic of a verb ratherthan of a name.. Whatyousayisclear.Butitisnotwithoutqualmsthatmymindacceptstheview(1)thatexpert-in-grammarisaquality(eventhoughitdoessignifyexpertise-in-grammar)or(2)that(a)manbyi.e.,apartfromexpertise-in-grammaris(an)expert-in-grammar(eventhoughwehaveproventhat(a)manandexpertise-in-grammararenottogether(an)expert-in-grammarfromwhichproofitfollowsthat(a)manbyhimselfis(an)expert-in-grammar,sincehecannotbe(an)expert-in-grammarexcepteitherbyhim-selfortogetherwithexpertise-in-grammar).ForalthoughthenameDe Grammatico14 - 16 153 Òexpert-in-grammarÓsignifiesexpertise-in-grammar,neverthelesstoonewhoaskswhat(an)expert-in-grammarisitwouldnotbeap-propriatetoanswer:Òexpertise-in-grammarÓor"quality."Andifnoone/nothingis(an)expert-in-grammarexceptbyparticipatinginexpertise-in-gramma

24 r,thenitfollowsthat(a)manisnot(an)expert
r,thenitfollowsthat(a)manisnot(an)expert-in-grammarexcepttogetherwithexpertise-in-grammar.. As for the claim that (a) man by himselfi.e., apart fromexpertise-in-grammaris (an) expert-in-grammar: this claim canbe construed in two ways, in one of which it is true and in theother of which it is false. And this distinction suffices to clear upyour perplexity. By himself and apart from expertise-in-grammar(a) man is, in fact, (an) expert-in-grammar, because he is the onlyone who has expertise-in-grammar. For, indeed, expertise-in-gram-mar does noteither by itself or together with (a) manhave ex-pertise-in-grammar. On the other hand, by himselfi.e., in the ab-sence of expertise-in-grammar(a) man is not (an) expert-in-gram-mar, because in the absence of expertise-in-grammar no one/noth-ing can be (an) expert-in-grammar. The case is comparable tosomeone's leading another by going before him. By himself theleader is ahead; for the one who is behind is not aheadeitherby himself or in such way that the two of them together consti-tute a single leader who is ahead. On the other hand, it is not thecase that by himself the leader is ahead, because if there is not onewho is behind there cannot be one who is ahead.Now, when it is said that expert-in-grammar is a quality, this iscorrectly said only in the sense which accords with Aristotle's trea-tise On the Categories. Does that treatise contain anything other than?:(i)Everything which exists is either a substance ora quantity or a quality, (etc.).So if (a) man by himself is (an) expert-in-grammar, (a) substanceby itself is (an) expert-in-grammar. In what sense, then, accordingto that treatise, is (an) expert-in-grammar a quality rather than asubstance?. Although what you have just said is a correct interpretationof that tex

25 t (because everything which exists is so
t (because everything which exists is some one of thesethings), nevertheless it was not Aristotle's primary aim to show thisDe Grammatico16 fact in his book; instead [his aim was to show] that every name andverb signifies some of these things. For he did not intend to showwhat each thing, individually, is or to show of what things eachword, individually, is appellative; instead [he intended to show] ofwhat things [each word, individually,] is significative. But sincewords signify only things : in saying what it is that words signify,he had to say what it is that things are. To mention only one [ev-idence of Aristotle's intention]: the classification which he makesat the beginning of his treatise On the Categoriesamply bears outwhat I am saying. For he does not say(ii)Eachofthosethingswhichexistiseitherasubstanceoraquantity,(etc.).Nor does he say(iii)Each of those things which are spoken of in accordance withno complexityis called either a substance or a quantity, [(etc.)].Rather, he says(iv)Each of those things which are spoken of in accordancewith no complexity [is spoken of by a word which] signifieseither a substance or a quantity, [(etc.)].. This argument convinces me of the point you are making.. Therefore, when Aristotle says ÒEach of those things whichare spoken of in accordance with no complexity [is spoken of bya word which] signifies either a substance or a quantity," (and soforth), which signification does he seem to you to be speakingabout?: about the signification by which these words signify of andby themselves (and which belongs substantially to these words) orabout the other signification, which exists on the basis of some-thing else (and [which belongs to these words] accidentally)?. Only about that signification by which these words signify

26 of and by themselveswhich signification
of and by themselveswhich signification he himself (in definingÒnameÓ and ÒverbÓ) affirmed to be present in these words.. Do you think that in his treatise he proceeded otherwise thanDe Grammatico17 155 Words such as Òhorse,Ó Òman,Ó ÒSocratesÓ Òwalks,Ó ÒrunsÓ stand alone and sig-nify or name through themselves. They may, however, be conjoined so as tomake a phrase, a clause, or a sentence: ÒSocrates walks,Ó ÒA man runs,Ó etc. Ifsomething is spoken of Òin accordance with no complexity,Ó it is spoken of bya single word rather than by a phrase, clause, or sentence. See Boethius, Categorias Aristotelisis a groupof words joined togetherso as to constitute a phrase, etc. he proposed to in his classification? Or [do you think] that any ofthose who succeeded him and who wrote about dialectic wantedto entertain a different view on this matter than he held?. Their writings do not at all allow anyone to think this, be-cause nowhere is any one of these writers found to have set forthsome word in order to show something which it signifies on thebasis of something else; rather they always [do so] in order to[show] that which it signifies of and by itself. For no one whowants to indicate a substance sets forth the word ÒwhiteÓ or Òex-pert-in-grammarÓ; rather, one who teaches about a quality setsforth the words Òwhite,Ó Òexpert-in-grammar,Ó and other words ofthis kind.. Therefore, if having proposed the aforementioned classifi-cation I were to ask you ÒWhat is expert-in-grammaraccording tothis classification and according to those who adhere to it in writ-ing about dialectic?Ó then about what would I be asking, or aboutwhat would you be answering me?. Surely, one can here be asking only about either the wordor the thing which the word signifies. Therefore, because it is ev-i

27 dent that in accordance with this classi
dent that in accordance with this classification Òexpert-in-gram-marÓ signifies expertise-in-grammar and not man: if you were ask-ing about the word Òexpert-in-grammar,Ó I would unhesitatingly an-swer that it is a word which signifies a quality; but if you were ask-ing about the thing, [I would answer] that the thing is a quality.. You are aware, are you not, that in his book Aristotle him-self calls words by the name of the things they signify and not bythe name of the things of which they are merely appellatives? Forexample, he says that(i)Every substance seems to signify something particular.That is,ii)Every word which signifies a substance [seems to signifysomething particular].Likewise, he namesor rather ÒshowsÓ (as you put it a momentago)things by the words which merely signify them but whichin many cases are not appellative of them.. I cannot fail to be aware of this. Therefore, whether one asksDe Grammatico17 about the word or about the thing: when one asks ÒWhat is (an)expert-in-grammar according to Aristotle's treatise and accordingto Aristotle's successors?Ó the correct answer is: ÒA quality.Ó Andyet with respect to appellation, (an) expert-in-grammar is really asubstance.. This is true. For if even the experts-in-grammar say one thingin accordance with the form of words and another thing in ac-cordance with the nature of things, then it ought not to disquietus that the dialecticians write in one way about words with respectto the fact that they signify, and in conversation use them in an-other way with respect to the fact that they are appellatives. For,in fact, the experts-in-grammar say that ÒlapisÓ is masculine in gen-der, ÒpetraÓ feminine, but ÒÓ neuter; and that Òtimereactive, but ÒtimeriÓ passive. And yet no one says that a stone [lapisis m

28 asculine or a rock [petra] feminine, or
asculine or a rock [petra] feminine, or that a servant () is neither masculine nor feminine, or that to fear (timereto do something, whereas to be afraid (timeri) is to undergo some-thing.. Your clear explanation does not allow me to doubt any ofthe things you have said. But regarding the topic at hand there isstill something that I want to learn. If expert-in-grammaris a qual-ity because it signifies a quality, then I do not see why it is notthe case that armedis a substance because it signifies a substance.And if the reason armedis a having is that it signifies a having,then I do not know why it is not the case that expert-in-grammara having because it signifies a having. For [the following compar-ison holds] in every respect: Just as Òexpert-in-grammarÓ is provedto signify a quality because it signifies the having of a quality, soÒarmedÓ signifies a substance because it signifies the having of asubstance, viz., the having of weapons. And just as ÒarmedÓ isproven to signify a having because it signifies the having ofweapons, so Òexpert-in-grammarÓ signifies a having because it sig-nifies the having of learning.. Given this reasoning, I cannot at all deny either that armedis a substance or that expert-in-grammar is a having.. Well, then, I would like to learn from you whether a singlething can belong to different categories.De Grammatico18 . I do not think that one and the same thing can be fittedunder different categories, even though in some cases my verdictcan be doubted. This issue, it seems to me, needs fuller and deep-er examination than we have undertaken in our present short dis-cussion. However, I do not see what prevents a single utterancewhich signifies more than one thing (but without signifying themas a single thing) from being placed, at times

29 , under more thanone categoryas, for exa
, under more thanone categoryas, for example, if is said to be both a quali-ty and a having. For it is not the case that as ÒmanÓ signifies asone thing both the substance and the qualities of which a manconsists, so ÒwhiteÓ signifies as a single thing both a quality anda having. For the thing of which ÒmanÓ is appellative is some onething which consists of the things I have mentioned. But the thingof which ÒwhiteÓ is appellative is not some one thing which con-sists of a having and a quality. For ÒwhiteÓ is appellative only of athing which has whiteness; and this thing does not at all consistof a having and a quality. Therefore, if it were said that(i)Man is a substance and man is a quality,then one and the same thingwhich is signified by the nameÒman,Ó and of which the name ÒmanÓ is appellativewould be stat-ed to be both a substance and a quality. But this statement seemsinconsistent. However, when we say that white is both a quality anda having, we are not stating that the thing of which ÒwhiteÓ is ap-pellative is both a quality and a having but are stating that thesetwo things [viz., a quality and a having] are signified by the nameÒwhite.Ó And from this statement nothing inconsistent results.S. But why is it not the case that in accordance with Aristotle'sclassification man is both a substance and a quality because it sig-nifies both a substance and a qualityjust as is both a qual-ity and a having because it signifies both a quality and a having?. One who asks this question can, I think, be satisfactorily an-swered by what I said earlier: viz., that ÒmanÓ principally signifiesa substance and that the one thing which ÒmanÓ principally sig-nifies is a substance; i.e., this thing is not a quality but is some-thing qualified. By contrast, ÒwhiteÓ does not pri

30 ncipally signifyanything, but instead eq
ncipally signifyanything, but instead equally signifies both a quality and a hav-ing; and it is not the case that from these [viz., from this qualityand this having] there results a single thing which would be moreDe Grammatico19 158 a quality [than a having] or more a having [than a quality]predominant thing ÒwhiteÓ would signify [the more].. I would like to have explained to me more clearly why it isnot the case that a single thing results from the [two] things whichÒwhiteÓ signifies.. If something consisted of these [two] things, then either itwould be a substance or else it would be something belonging toone of the other categories.. It could not be anything else.But nothing belonging to any of the categories results froma having and a whiteness.. I cannot contradict this.. Likewise, a single thing is produced from more than onething only [in one of the following ways]: (1) by means of a com-position of parts which belong to the same category (as, for ex-ample, an animal consists of a body and a soul); or (2) by meansof the harmonious union of a genus and one or more differenti-ae (as, for example, material object); or (3) by means of aspecies and a collection of distinguishing properties (as, for ex-ample, Plato). However, the [two] things which ÒwhiteÓ signifies donot belong to a single category; nor is either one of them relatedto the other as its genus or its differentia or its species or its col-lection of individuating properties; nor is either one a differentiaof a single genus. Rather, both are accidents of the same subject;but ÒwhiteÓ does not signify this subject, because ÒwhiteÓ does notat all signify anything other than a having and a quality. There-fore, a single thing does not result from those things which ÒwhiteÓsignifies.. Although the ar

31 gument seems to prove to me the point yo
gument seems to prove to me the point youare making, nevertheless I would like to hear what answer youwould give if, to your claim that in no respect does ÒwhiteÓ signi-fy anything other than a having and a quality, someone raised thefollowing objection:(i)Since is the same as having-whiteness, it does notdeterminately signify this or that thing (e.g., a material object)having whiteness, but indeterminately signifiessomething-having-whiteness.De Grammatico19 (ii)For [in support of the conclusion of ()] white is eitherwhat-has-whiteness or else what-does-not-have-whiteness.Now, it is not the case that white is what-does-not-have-whiteness.Therefore, white is what-has-whiteness. Thus, sincewhatever has whiteness can only be something, it is necessarythat white be something-which-has-whiteness, orsomething-having-whiteness. Finally, either ÒwhiteÓ signifiessomething-having-whiteness or else it signifiesnothing-having-whiteness. Now, ÒwhiteÓ cannot signifynothing-having-whiteness.(iii)Therefore, it is necessary that ÒwhiteÓ signifysomething-having-whiteness.. The point we are discussing is not whether whatever-is-whiteis something-[having-whiteness], or is what-has-[whiteness]. Instead,we are discussing whether the signification of the name ÒwhiteÓincludes (as the signification of ÒmanÓ includes ) the ex-pression Òsomething,Ó or Òwhat hasÓwith the consequence thatjust as a man is a rational mortal animal, so white is something-having-whiteness, or what-has-whiteness. For, indeed, it is necessaryfor any given thing to be a multiplicity of features which, never-theless, are not signified by its name. For example, it is necessaryfor any animal to be colored and to be either rational or non-ra-tional. Nevertheless, the name ÒanimalÓ does not signify any ofthese. The

32 refore, although white is only something
refore, although white is only something-having-white-ness, or what-has-whiteness, nevertheless it is not necessarily thecase that ÒwhiteÓ signifies this. For let us suppose that ÒwhiteÓ orÒwhitenessÓ signifies something-having-whiteness. Now, something-having-whiteness is nothing other than something-white.. It cannot be anything else.. Therefore, ÒwhiteÓ or ÒwhitenessÓ would always signify some-thing- white..This is true.. Therefore, where ÒwhiteÓ or ÒwhitenessÓ would be put, itwould always be right to substitute Òsomething white.Ó. This follows.. Therefore, where Òsomething whiteÓ would be said, it wouldalso be correct to say redundantly: ÒSomething something white.And where this would be said redundantly, it would be correct toDe Grammatico20 say it a third time, and so on to infinity.. This follows and is absurd.. Let it also be the case that white is the same as what-has-whiteness. Now, has is nothing other than is . It cannot be [anything else].. Therefore, white would be nothing other than what-is-having-whiteness.. Nothing else.. But when Òhaving whitenessÓ is said, this phrase signifiesnothing other than white.. This is true.. Therefore, white would be the same as what-is-white.. This follows.. Thus, wherever ÒwhiteÓ would be put, it would be correct tosubstitute Òwhat is white.Ó. I cannot deny it.. Therefore, if white were what-is-white, it would also be what-is-what-is-white. And if it were this, it would also be what-is-what-is-what-is-whiteand so on, to infinity.. This inference follows no less logically and is no less absurdthan the inference that oftentimes white is something something..However,ifsomeonesaysthatÒwhiteÓeithersignifiessomething-having-whitenessorsignifiesnothing-having-whiteness,[thenthisstatementcanbeinterpretedintwoways].Ifit

33 isin-terpretedassaying Ò'White' Óeither
isin-terpretedassaying Ò'White' Óeither signifies something-having-[whiteness] or signifies not- something-having-[whiteness]Ó (so thatÒnot-somethingÓ is an infinite name), then the disjunction is nei-ther exhaustive nor correct; and so it proves nothing. (It wouldbe like someone's saying ÒA blind-being either sees something orsees not-something.Ó) But if the statement is interpreted [as saying]Ò['White'] either signifies something-having-[whiteness] or does notsignify [something-having-whiteness], then the disjunction is ex-haustive and correct; and this construal is not opposed to thepoints previously made.. It is sufficiently clear that ÒwhiteÓ does not signify something-having-whiteness or what-has-whiteness but signifies only having-whiteness, i.e., only a quality and a having. And from these [two]alone there is not produced some one thing. And so, is bothof these, because it signifies both of them equally. And I see thatDe Grammatico21 161 this reasoning holds for all things that are spoken of by a non-com-plex expression which similarly signifies howsoever many thingsfrom which, nevertheless, a single thing does not result. And I donot think that any objection can rightly be raised against the thingswhich you have maintained in this disputation.. Right now I do not think so either. However, since you knowhow vigorously the dialecticians contend, in our day, with the prob-lem you have proposed, I do not want you to cling so tightly tothe points we have made that you would hold to them with stub-born persistence even if by weightier arguments someone elsecould destroy them and could prove something different. Butshould this destruction occur, you would not deny that at least ourdiscussion has benefited us in the practice of argumentation.De Grammatico21